MDC-PA(med) Prep. Test
Welcome to the MDC-PA(med) Prep Test, designed to help you prepare for the medical licensing examination. This practice test covers the five major areas of Medicine, Surgery, Obstetrics and Gynecology, Pediatrics, and Public Health.
Before we proceed, it is important to note that the questions provided in this practice test should not be taken as an exact representation or substitute for the actual exam. They are intended to offer you an opportunity to assess your knowledge and familiarize yourself with the types of questions you may encounter.
It is crucial to understand that this practice test is not officially endorsed by any institution or governing body. Therefore, it should not be interpreted as an official examination or a definitive measure of your readiness for the MDC-PA(med) exam.
We strongly advise you to consult official study materials and resources recommended by relevant authorities to ensure a comprehensive and accurate preparation for the examination. The practice test questions provided here are solely for educational purposes and should not be relied upon as a guaranteed indicator of your performance on the actual exam.
Let’s begin this practice test as a tool to enhance your knowledge and confidence in the subject matter. Good luck with your preparation!
To make it more fun, run a simulation by timing yourself for 1hr for 100 mcqs and 2.5hrs for 15 essay questions.. Be honest with yourself and run this licentiate exams simulation as required.
The most important reason for this prep test is to assess your time management skill…and remedy as appropriate.
SECTION A: Multiple Choice Questions-1hr
MEDICINE
1.A 60-year-old obese man who recently returned from a long flight, presents to your clinic with a day’s history of painful swelling of the left leg. He has a history, tobacco smoking. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
a. Cellulitis
b. Deep Vein Thrombosis
c. Tibia fracture
d. Osteomyelitis of left Tibia
e. Achilles Tendinitis
2. Hypertension is defined as
a. SBP >150, DBP >100
b. SBP >140, DBP >100
c. SBP >150, DBP >90
d. SBP > 140 DBP >90
e. SBP >160, DBP >100
3.A 75-year-old woman who has a history of coronary artery disease (CAD) and using warfarin is brought to the emergency department with left-sided weakness and eye deviation to the right. Which of the following is the most appropriate emergent test to obtain?
a. Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) scan of the brain
b. Computed tomography (CT) scan of the brain
c. Electroencephalogram
d. Carotid duplex
e. Spinal tap
4.The following are secondary causes of hypertension, except
a. Pheochromocytoma
b. Pregnancy
c. Aortic dissection
d. Hyperthyroidism
e. Coarctation of aorta
5.A reversible ventricular dysfunction that persists following an episode of ischemia when blood flow returns to normal is called
a. Hibernating Myocardium
b. Elastic Myocardium
c. Stunned Myocardium
d. Apoptotic Myocardium
e. Insulating Myocardium
6.Heart failure may arise from the following, EXCEPT
a. Valvular heart disease
b. Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease
c. Anemia
d. Constrictive pericarditis
e. Thrombocytosis
7.Orthopnea, dyspnea, paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnea and a raised jugular venous pressure are characteristic of
a. Right sided heart failure
b. Congestive cardiac failure
c. Hepatic encephalopathy
d. Left sided heart failure
e. Deep vein thrombosis
8. A 42year old obese woman who recently underwent a surgery presents to your facility with breathlessness, diaphoresis, hemoptysis and pleuritic chest pains. Examination of the left limb revealed a tender calf swelling with differential warmth. What is your likely diagnosis?
a. Pulmonary tuberculosis
b. Deep venous thrombosis
c. Hospital acquired pneumonia
d. Pulmonary embolism
e. Intra-operative barotrauma
9.What investigation likely to be conducted will include the following, except
a. Arterial Blood Gases
b. Abdominal CT scan
c. Chest X-ray
d. Doppler USG
e. Serum Troponin
10.Fibrosis in liver cirrhosis is initiated by activation of
a. Kupfer cells
b. Stellate cells
c. Astrocytes
d. Hepatic dendritic cells
e. Collagenase
11.In chronic liver disease, spontaneous bacterial peritonitis is a complication of
a. Ascites
b. Hepato-renal syndrome
c. Hepato-pulmonary syndrome
d. Esophageal varies
12. Consolidation on a chest X-ray most likely points to
a. Asthma
b. Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease
c. Lung cancer
d. Pulmonary embolism
e. Pneumonia
13. A pneumothorax refers to
a. Collection of air in the pleural cavity of the chest
b. Buildup of blood in the pleural cavity
C. Buildup of fluid in the pleural cavity
d. Buildup of lymph in the pleural cavity
e. Pneumonia in the thorax
14.What is the most likely cause of generalized edema with ascites when the ascites starts with pedal swelling?
a. Angio-oedema
b. Heart disease
c. Liver disease
d. Lymphedema
e. Renal disease
15.Which of the following have shown efficacy in treating Non alcoholic fatty liver disease (NAFLD)?
a. Vitamin E
b.Thiamine
c.Pentoxifyline
d.All of the above
16.A known asthmatic adult presents with acute asthmatic attack, severe dyspnea and sweats. Your immediate treatment will include the following, except
a. Nebulizing with Ventolin solution 5mg 4 hourly
b. IV hydrocortisone 200 mg
c. IV aminophylline 250 mg when dyspnea persists after a & b
d. S.C adrenaline (1:1000)1.0 cc immediately
17. Life threatening asthma will present the following, except
severe rhonchi
b. Cyanosis
c Confusion
d. Bradycardia
e. PEFR < 30% of predicted normal
18.Causes of type 2 respiratory failure include the following, except
a. Guillain-Barre Syndrome
b. Myasthenia Gravis
c. Pectus carinatum
d. Acute Lung Injury
e. Drug overdose
19.Stage 5 of the RIFLE criteria in the assessment of acute renal failure is
a.Persistent renal failure for >3months
b.Persistent renal failure for > 6 months
c.Loss of renal function >4weeks
d.Serum creatinine level of 2 times the upper limit normal
e.Serum creatinine level of 3 times the upper limit of normal
20.The following are post-renal causes of acute kidney injury EXCEPT
a. Blood clots
b. Pelvic lymphadenopathy
c. Tubular necrosis
d.Bladder stones
e. Benign prostatic hyperplasia
PEDIATRICS
21.Congenital heart diseases are categorized as
a. Acquired and congenital
b. Cyanotic and acquired
c. Cyanotic and acyanotic
d. Septal and preseptal
22. Clinical estimation of cyanosis is based on
a. Visual assessment
b. Pulse oximetry
c. Hemoglobin estimation
d. Laboratory measurement of oxygen levels
23. All the following are associated with congenital heart disease except
a. Gestational diabetes at 8 weeks
b. Down syndrome
c. Rubella infection at 8 weeks
d. Rubella infection at 39 weeks
24. Coarctation of the aorta is an example of
a. Cyanotic heart disease
b. Acyanotic heart disease
c. Shunt defects
d. Defects with increased pulmonary blood flow
25. Portal hypertension is a possible complication of
a. Schistosomiasis
b. Hookworm infestation
c. Ascaris infestation
d.Giardia lamblia
26. Anal pruritus is associated with
a. Hook worm infestation
b. Tape worm infestation
c.Ascaris infestation
d. Schistosoma infestation
27. Ingestion of raw or poorly cooked meat is a risk factor for infestation with
a. Hookworm
b. Tapeworm
c. Schistosoma sp
d. Trichuris trichuria
28.The commonest cause of neonatal conjunctivitis is
a. Herpes simplex virus
b. Neisseria gonorrhoea
c. Chlamydia trachomatis
d. Staphylococcus aureus
e. Streptococcus pyogenes
29.All are features of neonatal conjunctivitis except
a. Redness of the eye
b. Swelling of the eye lids
c. Purulent discharge from the eye
d. Fever
e. All of the above
30.The third most common cause of cancer among children in Ghana is
a. Burkitt’s lymphoma
b. Retinoblastoma
c. Leukaemia
d. Hepatocellular carcinoma
e. Wilms tumour
31.The first sign of retinoblastoma is often
a. Redness of the eye
b. Visual loss
c. White, shiny spot in the pupil
d. Strabismus
e. Vitreous haemorrhage
32.Palliative management of advanced-stage retinoblastoma include
a. Metoclopramide for management of vomiting
b. Ceftriaxone and gentamicin for management of febrile neutropenia
c. Blood and blood products for management of anemia and thrombocytopenia
d. All of the above
e. None of the above
33.The forth most common cause of cancer among children in Ghana is
a. Burkitt’s lymphoma
b. Retinoblastoma
c. Leukaemia
d. Hepatocellular carcinoma
e. Wilms tumour
34.Which of the following is a cyanotic congenital heart disease?
a. Aortic stenosis
b. Tetralogy of Fallot
c. Coarctation of the aorta
d. Pulmonary stenosis
e. Atrial septal defect
35.The ‘Boot-shaped’ appearance of the heart on plain x-ray is suggestive of
a. Aortic stenosis
b. Coarctation of the aorta
c. Pulmonary stenosis
d. Tetralogy of Fallot
e. Atrial septal defect
36.‘Egg-on-a-string’ sign on plain x-ray of the chest is suggestive of
a. Aortic stenosis
b. Coarctation of the aorta
c. Pulmonary stenosis
d. Tetralogy of Fallot
e. Transposition of great arteries
37.‘Snowman sign’ on plain x-ray of the chest is suggestive of
a. Total anomalous pulmonary vascular return
b. Coarctation of the aorta
c. Pulmonary stenosis
d. Tetralogy of Fallot
e. Transposition of treat arteries
38.‘Scimitar sign’ on plain x-ray of the chest is suggestive of
a. Total anomalous pulmonary vascular return
b. Coarctation of the aorta
c. Total anomalous pulmonary vascular return
d. Tetralogy of Fallot
e. Transposition of treat arteries
39.‘Figure of three and reversed figure of three’ sign on plain x-ray of the chest is suggestive of
a. Total anomalous pulmonary vascular return
b. Coarctation of the aorta
c. Total anomalous pulmonary vascular return
d. Tetralogy of Fallot
e. Transposition of treat arteries
40.Classically there are four defects in the tetralogy of Fallot and they include except,
a. Transposition of the great arteries
b. Pulmonary stenosis
c. Right ventricular hypertrophy
d. Ventricular septal defect
e. Overriding aorta
OBSTETRICS AND GYNECOLOGY
41. The treatment option for cervical incompetence include
a. Cervical cerclage
b. In vitro fertilization (IVF)
c. Hormonal therapy
d. All of the above
e. None of the above
42. The following is the most likely cause of recurrent molar pregnancy
a. Advanced maternal age
b. Previous molar pregnancy
c. Endometriosis
d. All of the above
e. None of the above
43. A complication of gestational trophoblastic disease may include,
a. Choriocarcinoma
b. Infection
c. Hemorrhage
d. All of the above
e. None of the above
44.The treatment option for gestational trophoblastic disease include the following
a. Chemotherapy
b. Hysterectomy
c. Radiation therapy
d. All of the above
e. None of the above
45. A 25-year-old woman presents with pain during intercourse and abnormal vaginal discharge. On examination, her cervix appears abnormal and a biopsy confirms the presence of cancer. What is the potential malignant lesion?
a. Cervical dysplasia
b. Endometrial cancer
c. Ovarian cyst
d. None of the above
46. A 30-year-old woman presents with irregular periods and abdominal pain. On examination, a mass is palpable in her ovary. What is a the most likely diagnosis?
a. Endometriosis
b. Ovarian cyst
c. Cervical cancer
d. Fibroid
47.A 50-year-old woman presents with postmenopausal bleeding and pelvic pain. On examination, her uterus is enlarged and a biopsy confirms the presence of cancer. What is the most likely cancer?
a. Endometrial hyperplasia
b. Endometrial cancer
c. Ovarian cyst
d. Fibroid
48.Which of the following is NOT a risk factor for female infertility?
a. Advanced maternal age
b. Polycystic ovary syndrome (PCOS)
c. Endometriosis
d. Regular menstrual cycles
e. Uterine fibroids
49. Which of the following is a common cause of male infertility?
a. Endometriosis
b. Polycystic ovary syndrome (PCOS)
c. Low sperm count
d. Uterine fibroids
e. Hypospadia
50. Which of the following is a treatment option for female infertility?
a. Intrauterine insemination (IUI)
b. Vasectomy
c. Intracytoplasmic sperm injection (ICSI)
d. Testicular biopsy
e. None of the above
51.All the following are minor signs of pregnancy except
a) Morning sickness
b) Vagina bleeding
c) Haemorrhage
d) heart burns
52. The release of the ovum within two (2) weeks before the menstruation is known as….
a) Ovulation
b) Uterine cycle
c) Ovarian cycle
d) Periodontal follicle
53. Late bleeding in pregnancy is termed as…
a) Intrapartum haemorrhage
b) Postpartum haemorrhage
c) Premature detachment of the placenta
d) Ante partum hemorrhage.
54. Genetic material of microorganism is either…………..
a) DNA or ATP
b) RNA or ATP
c) DNA or RNA
d) DNA or GTP
55. The terminal phase of the menstrual cycle when the endometrum shed the basal layer along with blood from the capillaries with unfertilized ovum is termed……….
a) Menopause
b) Puberty
c) Menstruation
d) Pituitary phase
56. Some drugs that may interfere with the absorption of contraceptives are,
a) Rifampicin
b) Barbiturates
c) Griseofulvin
d) All the above
e) None of the above
57. A couple presented in OPD with H/ O infertility since last 2
years. Husbands semen analysis was advised. What is
WHO criterion – for minimum sperm count in normal
semen?
a) 10 million.
b) 20 million.
c.30 million.
d) 40 million.
e) 70 million.
58. A 23 years old primigravida presents with abdominal
pain, syncope and vaginal spotting. Assessment reveals
that she has an ectopic pregnancy. The most common site
of pregnancy is:
a) Ampulla.
b) Isthmus.
c) Fimbrial end.
d) Abdomin.
e) Cervix.
59. Mean age for menopause is:
a) 40 years.
b)45 years.
c) 51 years.
d) 48 years.
e) 39 years.
60. Which of the following methods listed below the best procedure for diagnosis of a
postmenopausal woman with uterine bleeding and a negative Pap smear is:
a. Routine D & C
b.Cervical conization
c. Medical curettage
d.Cervical conization and D & C
e. Fractional D & C
SURGERY
61. ORIF stands for:
a. Open reduction internal fixation
b. Open reduction immobile fracture
c. Orthopedic recognized internal fracture
d. None of the above are correct
e. All of the above are correct
62. Wound healing involves all of the following steps EXCEPT:
a. Hemostasis
b. Inflammation
c. Hyperplasia
d. Proliferation
e. Remodeling
63. Signs of infection include:
a. Redness
b. Warmth
c. Swelling
d. Pain
e. All of the above
64. Which statement about burns is false?
a. Second degree burns involve the dermis and epidermis
b. Full thickness burns destroy all skin layers
c. Chemical burns do not cause tissue damage
d. Thermal burns are caused by heat or flame
e. Radiation burns are caused by radiation exposure
65. Symptoms of hypovolemia include:
a. Thirst
b. Weakness
c. Tachycardia
d. All of the above
e. None of the above
66. Phantom pain is best described as a.Nociceptive pain
b.Central neuropathic pain
c.Peripheral neuropathic pain
d.Sympathetically-mediated pain
e. All of the above
67. The platinum rule for managing an open fracture states:
a. Irrigate copiously with saline
b. Debride all nonviable tissue
c. Administer IV antibiotics
d. Stabilize with an external fixator
e. All of the above
68. Causes of abdominal trauma include:
a. Blunt injuries
b. Penetrating injuries
c. Both a and b
d. Neither a nor b
e. None of the above
69. Symptoms of an inguinal hernia include:
a. Pain in the groin
b. Scrotal swelling
c. Bulge in the groin
d. All of the above
e. None of the above
70. Symptoms of ulcers include:
a. Abdominal pain
b. Nausea
c. Vomiting blood
d. Weight loss
e. All of the above
71. Burn associated ulcer is called
a) Cushing’s ulcer
b)Curling’s ulcer
c)Trophic ulcer
d)Peptic ulcer
72. What is the correct management for a surgical inpatient with blood sugars of 1.1?
a.50mL of 20% Dextrose IV
b. 50mL of 50% Dextrose IV
c.Glucagon 1mg IM
d. Hypostop 9.2g PO
73.The Golden Hour Concept was first postulated by
a. R Adams Crowley
b. Dominique Larry
C.James K Styner
d. Prof Pierre J Valdoran
74. Several trauma protocols were formulated during the first world war which was fought
a.1914-1918
b. 1926-1936
C.1952-1957
d1876-1888
75. Most common cause of acute abdomen
a. Typhoid enteritis
b. Ectopic Pregnancy
cAcute appendicitis
d. Peptic ulcer discase
76.What is the normal range for potassium?
a.1 – 3.5 mmol/L
b. 3 – 5 mmol/L
c 3.5 – 5 mmol/L
d.5 – 7 mmol/L
77. A1 6-year-old male is brought to the emergency department by his parents
for right-sided abdominal pain. The pain is also felt in his scrotum. What is the most
likely diagnosis
a. Acute appendicitis
b,Scrotal Infection
C.Scrotal Tumour
d. Renal Calculi
78. During primary survey C means
a.airway maintenance with cervical spine protection
b.breathing and ventilation
C.neurologic evaluation
d. haemorrhage control
79. TBW in a neonate male constitutes
a. 65% of Body weight
b. 80% of Body weight
c. 70% of Body weight
d. 60% of Body weight
80.In the Tropics Daily water requirement is
a. 5L
b.3L
c.2.5L
d. 1500mls
PUBLIC HEALTH
81.All of the following are suggestive of malaria diagnosis EXCEPT:
a. Fever
b. Chills
c. Headache
d. Loss of appetite
e. Rashes
82. Which vaccine is used to prevent yellow fever?
a. MMR vaccine
b. Hepatitis B vaccine
c. Yellow fever vaccine
d. BCG vaccine
e. Influenza vaccine
83. Which of the following is a zoonotic disease?
a. Malaria
b. Typhoid
c. Plague
d. Tuberculosis
e. All of the above
84. The condition known as “Mask of Pregnancy” refers to:
a. Hypertension
b. Gestational diabetes
c. Anemia
d.Eclampsia
e. None of the above
85. The main cause of puerperal sepsis is:
a. Poor hygiene
b. STDs
c. Anemia
d. Prolonged labor
e. Abruptio placentae
86.The main cause of trachoma is:
a. Poor personal hygiene
b.Viral infection
c.Bacterial infection
d. Fungal infection
e. Protozoal infection
87.The most effective way to prevent smoking related cancers is:
a. Health education
b. Early diagnosis
c. Vaccination
d.Not to smoke at all
e. Chemotherapy
88. The incidence of HIV/AIDS is highest among:
a. Elderly people
b.Adolescents and young adults
c. Children under 5 years
d. Middle aged adults
e. Infants
89. The optimum temperature for polio vaccine storage is:
a. 2-8°C
b. 24-28°C
c.14-15°C
d. Below 0°C
e. Above 37°C
90. Defective tooth enamel is a characteristic feature of:
a. Vitamin A deficiency
b.Vitamin C deficiency
c. Vitamin B12 deficiency
d. Vitamin D deficiency
e. Fluoride deficiency
91. Which vector transmits kala-azar?
a. Mosquito
b. Tsetsefly
c. Tick
d. Louse
e. None of the above
92.The antimalarial drug which was withdrawn because of severe side effects is:
a. Chloroquine
b. Fansidar
c. Mefloquine
d. Artemether
e. Artesunate
93. The mode of transmission of typhoid fever is through:
a. Insect bites
b. Contaminated food and water
c.Touching infected persons
d.Breastfeeding
e. Sexual contact
94. A major symptom of whooping cough is:
a. Cough
b.Rash
c.Fever
d.Vomiting
e. None of the above
95. Common symptoms of chickenpox include all of the following EXCEPT:
a. Fever
b. Fatigue
c. Irritability
d.Runny nose
e. Rash
96. The disease that targets lymphocytes causing immune deficiency is:
a. Diabetes mellitus
b. HIV/AIDS
c. Hypertension
d. Cancer
e. Tuberculosis
97. Which infectious disease is targeted for eradication by 2030?
a. Malaria
b. Tuberculosis
c. Poliomyelitis
d. Measles
e. Ebola
98. The key symptom of diphtheria is:
a. High fever
b.Sore throat
c.Respiratory distress
d. Diarrhea
e. None of the above
99.Community based rehabilitation aims at:
a. Rehabilitation at health facilities
b. Rehabilitation at home and community settings
c.Only medical rehabilitation
d.Exclusion of persons with disabilities
e. None of the above
100. The most appropriate method of artificial contraception for breast feeding mothers is:
a. Combined oral contraceptive pill
b. Progestin only injectable
c. Condom
d Lactational amenorrhea
e. Intrauterine contraceptive device
ALL THE BEST
SECTION B: ESSAY -2.5hrs
GENERAL SURGERY
1.A 35 year old man presents with severe pains in the buttock with fever and rigors of three days duration. On examination, he is vaguely tender to the right of the anus and rectal examination though uncomfortable, was not particularly tender,
a What is the clinical diagnosis?
b.Name four diagnostic features
c List four complications that may supervene
2. A 24-year old healthy man is evaluated for painless rectal bleeding after bowel movements. He has never been ill or hospitalized. A flexible sigmoidoscopy reveals the presence of small internal hemorrhoids.
(a) Initial management of this patient would be what?
(b) List 4 differential diagnosis of this condition
(c) List 3 other methods of treating hermorrhoids
3.a.List 6 serious Burn injuries that require Hospitalization.
b. Briefly discuss how you will estimate total burn surface area in a patient.
A 28-year-old lady who is 70 Kg is brought into the Trauma unit with 30% TBSA Burn, mixed thickness. She is said to have sustained the burns about 3 hours prior to presentation while cooking lunch.
c. Discuss the fluid resuscitation regimen you will administer.
PEDIATRICS
4. A 2-day old child whose weight was 4.2 kg at birth is noticed to have weakness in the right arm with no associated symptoms. On examination, the child’s right arm is adducted and internally rotated, with prone forearm.
a. What is the diagnosis?
b. State three differential diagnosis.
c. Which nerves are most likely affected?
d. How will you manage the condition?
5.A boy of 15 years old, known sickle cell disease patient presents with sudden onset of cough, dyspnoea and fever. He has moderate chest pain. On examination, he is mildly pale but not jaundiced.
a. What is the diagnosis?
b. State five (5) investigations you will request for the patient.
c. How will you manage the condition?
d. Mention five (5) complications of the patient’s condition.
6. An 11 month old baby was brought to your facility after several bouts of diarrhoea and vomiting. He had very sunken and dry eyes, skin goes back very slowly when pinched, drinks poorly.
a. What are the 2 diagnoses?
b. Which WHO plan would be used in this child
c. Describe the fluid management in this child. (Including volumes and duration)
d. What complication would arise if this child doesn’t get adequate fluid intake.
OBSTETRICS AND GYNECOLOGY
7.A 32-year-old woman, who is currently at 38 weeks gestation, presents to the labor and delivery unit with complaints of decreased fetal movement over the past 12 hours. The fetal heart rate monitoring shows late decelerations and reduced variability. The patient reports mild contractions every 5-7 minutes.
a. What is the most likely diagnosis?
b. State three (3) differential diagnosis.
c. How will you manage the condition?
8.A 30-year-old student has been sexually assaulted and she requests an emergency contraception.
a. Name any two emergency contraception methods.
b. What are the benefits?
c. What are the risks?
d. How would she prevent an acute pelvic inflammatory disease?
9.A 70-year-old presents at the gynaecology OPD with second degree uterovaginal prolapse.
a. Describe the factors that could have contributed to her having this condition.
b. Describe your management of this woman.
INTERNAL MEDICINE
10.A 51-year-old farmer and resident of a rural community have been brought to your health center on account of a headache and inability to open the jaw. On your assessment, you noticed a wound on the anterior part of the left leg, which according to a relative, he has been treating at home with herbal medicine for 2 weeks. He is afebrile but restless.
a) What is the most likely diagnosis?
b) State five (5) differential diagnoses.
c) Mention three (3) investigations you will request.
d) How will you manage the condition?
e) State five (5) complications of the condition.
11.A 40years old man who smokes ciggarete presented with gibbus and T4 wedge
a.what is the most likely diagnosis?
b.what will be your investigation
c.state 4 medications used in treatment with one side effect each
12.A 40-year-old has been drinking for a while now and binge drink yesterday in the evening, he was brought in unconscious but became confused few minutes later with diaphoresis and seizures.
a) What is the most likely diagnosis?
b) What will be your immediate intervention?
c) List 4 long term complication of this condition.
13. a).Define the term “social determinants of health.”
b) Describe two specific social determinants that could impact the health of individuals in a low-income urban community in Ghana.
14.a) What is the difference between morbidity and mortality?
b) Provide one example of each, and describe how they are measured and reported in Ghana.
15.a)What is malnutrition?
b.Malnutrition is a public health concern; mention four ways you will prevent malnutrition in children.
c.What is the relationship between good nutrition in children to attainment of SDG 3
ALL THE BEST
Below is a link to download the Simulation Test;
https://drive.google.com/drive/folders/1-Gp5I9-e1vw5Hn0nLyqX1RKXg9nWLHLa